Re: Final Solution of the Aquatic Question


"Pauline M Ross" <pmross@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:k4o5g1hc4b2eammh9oceop9nj3qre2je8r@xxxxxxxxxx
> On 16 Aug 2005 19:41:37 -0700, "Algis Kuliukas" <algis@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
> wrote:
>
>>To throw another spanner into the works... Could it not also be that
>>only *some* of our ancestors lived off the African mainland. Perhaps
>>*some* others, who remained on the mainland, received the marker but
>>were then replaced by the ones who had not received it?
>
> Yes, I suggested something like this upthread, and asked whether such
> a scenario would have been feasible. I haven't yet had a meaningful
> answer to that point.
>
> The point is that it has been assumed that our ancestors were in
> Africa, and only in Africa, until the first Homo erectus turn up in
> Asia at 1Mya or so. But it is just an assumption, and there is nothing
> at all to suggest where our ancestors were at 3-4Mya, the estimated
> time of the retrovirus marker.
>
> --
> Pauline Ross
>
You right in that a non-African sojourn for Homo
is not impossible. But all preliminary indications
of extra-African hominins previous to 2MMy have
not proven out. My only point is that arguing this
possibility on the basis of this paper or the outdated
Todaro paper is not warranted. At best this paper
does not exclude the possibility. Relative infectiousness
of viruses seems to be tricky business. The immunodeficiency
virus in monkeys and apes is sublethal if not harmless.
I don't need to tell anyone about its effect on humans.
And no one argues humans wern't in Africa the past
2.5MMy. But virology is a complicated and fast moving
field and plucking out convenient bits is fraught with
difficulty.

Rick Wagler


.

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