Looking for some direction

Greetings,
I am interested in understanding the process of language acquisition
(development) from monosyllabic representative sounds, such as
onomatopoeia <e.g. ruff-ruff and moo> to the use of grammatical
decisions of word order. I have read that in the Aurignacian culture
language was "artificial" -- perhaps not as sophisticated as ours but
on its way. This means 35,000 years ago the advancement of language
was as good as the advancement of artistic know-how .... which was no
less advanced then Picasso (according to his own assessment). Is there
a theory that make sense, that explains the way in which artificial
language evolves and the time it takes from simple grunts of need to
words that express conceptual principles?

Also .. please forgive my lack of knowledge... but did rhinos really
live in Southwest France 35,000 years ago or did the artists of Chauvet
Cave remember them from their nomadic travels?

Is there any evidence that these folks traveled from areas as far as
the great expanse south of the Urals ... perhaps as far as Kazakhstan?

I am fascinated by the red dots found in the Chauvet cave ... the red
ochre palm prints. Could these be systems for counting? The artists
did not live in the cave and they built fires to produce the charcoal
with which they drew ... they were artisans ... perhaps there was a
practical purpose to the red dots ... or perhaps the lack of oxygen in
the caves caused temporary physiological phenomena that in some way
relates to the red dots. I know from having been, on a few occasions,
lightheaded that dots blurred my vision. I am not negating the
possible use of "magic mushrooms" by these early home sapiens, as some
finds have suggested, but I would like to exhaust the possibilities of
the natural effects of the environment first ... before I look at the
art as wholly shamanistic.

I would greatly appreciate any kindly and pertinent guidance you might
offer.
Holly

.

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