Re: a question for inger

From: Doug Weller (dweller_at_ramtops.demon.co.uk)
Date: 11/14/04 

Date: Sun, 14 Nov 2004 16:56:59 +0000

On Sun, 14 Nov 2004 15:10:03 GMT, in sci.archaeology, Inger E. Johansson
wrote:

>Doug,
>you still haven't got it.
>Why not start in looking in older encyclopedias for example Websters from
>1913. There you at least will get a view of the difference between one and
>the other.
>You can't use Norse the way you do - it's as if an Englishman or an American
>used the adjective 'Australian' when speaking of a New Zealander. You better
>be more careful in your vocabulary. You see it's not the English speaking
>world who of course mostly knew Norwegians and Danes who shall tell us in
>Scandinavia that we Swedes are to be called Norse in older ages - that never
>been so in the past. Observe that in old documents the Danes always have
>been named seperately and so was Swedes. All other is later days
>definition-construction not the old value at all.

I repeat, complain to the dictionary compilers. I am using the word Norse
in its common contemporary *English* meaning. Whether or not you like it
is immaterial to its meaning. And it doesn't matter how it was used
centuries ago, I live now.

Doug 

-- 
Doug Weller -- exorcise the demon to reply
Doug & Helen's Dogs http://www.dougandhelen.com
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Doug's Archaeology Site: http://www.ramtops.co.uk

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