Re: The Vinland Map's Ink

Eric Stevens wrote in message
<4j3j515l37hgn41pcg3pg086ft0vnpp6ib@xxxxxxx>...
>
>On Sun, 10 Apr 2005 10:06:43 GMT, "David B" <tronospamchos@xxxxxxxxx>
>wrote:
>>
>>I must remind you of the question Ken posed:
>
>>>>>If the map is really medieval, what is a PLAUSIBLE explanation
>>>>>for the appearance AND composition of the inks that is consistent
>>>>>with the age of the parchment? Can Mr. Stevens, Mr. Renfors or
>>>>>Ms. Johansson answer this question without digressing onto other
>>>>>topics or making further ad hominem comments?
>>
>
>Your reminder is misplaced. First, I was responding directly to you. I
>used the term 'plausible scenario' as this was the term used by you in
>the article to which I was responding.
>
>Second, we started heading down this particular branch of the
>discussion when Thomas Zahr wrote:
>
> "If the map is authentic, it must be possible to describe the
> process followed to produce it, taking all it's properties
> into account."

Fair enough. I happen to agree with you that the phrasing of Thomas's claim
goes a bit further beyond what Ken originally proposed than I would. But
not that much further, try a slight modification to:
"If the map is authentic, it must be possible to describe the process
followed to produce it, taking all its KNOWN properties into account".
In other words, however little is known about an artifact, it will be
possible to produce hypotheses which explain all its known properties. This
is where my other messages in this thread, with my description of a 20th
century process, come in. If there are properties of the map which
contradict any of the points in that description, then the description must
at the very least be modified, and may fall altogether (if one of the
properties of the map, for example, was a known provenance going back to
1440).

So here's a modified version of Ken's question: can somebody produce a
description of the map-making process which is not contradicted by any
known property of the Map?


David B.


.

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