Re: A question...

"Matt Giwer" <jull43@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
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Alan Crozier wrote:
"Matt Giwer" <jull43@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
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Seppo Renfors wrote:
Matt Giwer wrote:
prd wrote:
In sci.archaeology message news:WooTf.139$rg7.0@xxxxxxxx by Tom
McDonald <tmcdonald2672@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> . . . :
Seppo Renfors wrote:
Matt Giwer wrote:
Dylan Sung wrote:
"Matt Giwer" <jull43@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:L5NMf.45304$g47.21042@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
It is incorrect to compare Bush to Hitler. Hitler served in
combat.
Hitler was also a vegetarian. Gandhi was too...
Gandhi was an Aryan. So was Hitler. Bush is a Texan.
Gandhi was an ethnic Indian and a social pacifist and Hitler was an
Austrian educated German who wanted to rule the world.
But both were speakers of a language in the Aryan language group. That is all
Aryan ever meant.
CRAP!
Hitler + "Aryan" = FICTION.
Hitler IS NOT A LANGUAGE which is the only other (as you now allege)
alternative there is to your claim - that is abject nonsense as well.

It is difficult to believe there are participants in s.a who do not know the
name Aryan (from Iran) language group was changed to Indo-European after the war.

Which war are you talking about? Napoleonic?

In context it was WWII, of course.

The term Indo-European was coined in 1813. By
the end of that century the word Aryan was very rarely used to refer to the language
family.
Before the Second World War all linguists had dropped the term Aryan. The Germans called
it
Indogermanisch, as they still do.

And your point is that you can document this, correct? And you are going to
imply the Nazis called themselves Iranians? There is no other origin for word
Aryan.

It does not take much reading to find Aryan language group was first observed
by an Englishman working in India and noticing the languages in NW India was of
the same language group as India.

Was it so surprising that "the languages in NW India was of the same language group as
India"? Wasn't NW India a part of India?

Which should have read as follows. The typo would have been obvious to one who
knows the usage of the Aryan/IE langauge group.

Typos may be obvious to the person who made them, but not always to the reader. Lots of
people post rubbish to this group which is quite on a par with what you accidentally wrote.
For example, ISTR Seppo claiming that the Indo-Iranian languages were not Indo-European.

>>It does not take much reading to find Aryan language group was first observed
>>by an Englishman working in India and noticing the languages in NW India was
>>of the same language group as _English_.

Anyway, Sir William Jones was was not the first to observe the affinities between Indian
and
European languages.

So who should get the credit?

Thomas Stephens, an English Jesuit who lived in India 1559-1619, wrote a letter in 1585 in
which he remarked on how the languages of India structurally resembled Latin and Greek. The
Italian merchant Filippo Sassetti, who lived in India 1583-9, pointed out lexical affinities
between Sanskrit and Italian. Then there was a Dutchman who saw relationships between
Persian and European langauges: Franciscus Raphelengius informed Bonaventura Vulcanius (De
Smet) who published a list of comparative vocabulary in 1579. Abraham van de Mijl published
a book in 1612 comparing his "lingua belgica" with Latin, Greek and Persian.

In 1725 the German missionary Benjamen Schulze noted resemblances between Sanskrit, Latin
and German. In 1767 The French Jesuit Gaston Laurent Coeurdoux compiled lists of Sanskrit
words with parallels in Latin and Greek. The Englishman Nathaniel Brassey Halhed, living in
Bengal, wrote a grammar of Bengali in 1778, pointing out in the preface how Sanskrit
resembled Latin and Greek.

All these observations came before Sir William Jones.

My source is Bernard Sargent, Les Indo-Européens (Paris: Payot, 1995).

Alan
--
Alan Crozier
Lund
Sweden


.

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