The Baldwin Effect: What is it trying to say?
- From: "whitesickle@xxxxxxx" <whitesickle@xxxxxxx>
- Date: Sun, 4 Dec 2005 13:55:33 -0500 (EST)
Apparently the Baldwin Effect has some efficacy in computational models
but I do not understand mathematics and I think computational modeling
by itself is insufficient to make the evolutionary point. First, I read
Baldwin's theory was intended to replace Lamarck's theory of aquired
characteristics. Second, I read Baldwin's Effect was associated with
genetic assimilation and canalization but some researchers now are
saying it doesn't depend on genetic assimilation. Very strangely, the
general point of Baldwin seems to be the phenotype(s) plasticity and
effecting "changes" in it with no direct connection between phenotype
and genotype. I'm inclined, unless it can be shown otherwise, the
Baldwin Effect has had minimal effects on evolution.
Learning is the most cited example of Baldwin's Effect. Yet ever since
recorded civilization humans have remained basically unchanged by
Darwinian evolution. Our "learning" or education has increased as has
our knowledge but genetically we haven't much. Therefore, there hasn't
been any evidence of Baldwin's Effect on Darwinian evolution as I see.
If one defines evolution to also entail cultural evolution then I would
argue Baldwin's Effect has had some effect on evolution...but not a
whole lot. The only way I see Baldwin's Effect having a signifigant
effect is if the continuation of learning and knowledge goes beyond the
idea of effecting changes in phenotypic plasticity without a direct
connection between phenotype and genotype.
I came across the following work which I might read...if not too
technical:
Griffiths P.E.: Beyond the Baldwin Effect: James Mark Baldwin's
'social heredity', epigenetic
inheritance and niche-construction', in Learning, Meaning and
Emergence: Possible
Baldwinian Mechanisms in the Co-Evolution of Mind and Language, Weber,
B. and Depew,
D. (eds), (2003)
Michael Ragland
.
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