Re: Where would we be without these important patents?


<royls@xxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:441c40b1.20222611@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
On Sat, 18 Mar 2006 14:27:59 -0000, "Andy F." <never.mind@xxxxxxxxx>
wrote:

<royls@xxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
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On Fri, 17 Mar 2006 10:46:35 -0000, "Andy F." <never.mind@xxxxxxxxx>
wrote:

On Thu, 16 Mar 2006 14:09:30 -0000, "Andy F." <never.mind@xxxxxxxxx>
wrote:

<royls@xxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:4418e1af.7530316@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
On Thu, 16 Mar 2006 02:44:55 -0000, "Andy F." <never.mind@xxxxxxxxx>
wrote:

"nospam" <nospam@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:JKWdne-jtsfgYYjZnZ2dnUVZ_v2dnZ2d@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Andy F. wrote:

That would mean a lot of inventors would be out of a job.

From where you got this idea ? The scientists and engineers are
employed
to
design a product. The company will have the full right to use this
designs.

But without exclusive use of the designs, the firm won't make enough
profits
to justify paying the inventors' wages.

Such claims are common, but false and ridiculous. Do you think no
inventor was ever paid wages before there were patents? Give your
head a shake.

Technological progress has been a lot faster since patents were
introduced.

That is a blatant post hoc fallacy. So has population growth,
literacy rates, democratic governance, life expectancy, etc. Do
patents get all the credit for those, too?

I didn't use a post hoc fallacy.

Yes, of course you did.

You raised the question of what happened
before there were patents.

And you couldnt't answer it, because the only possible answer
destroyed your argument. So you trotted out the post hac fallacy
instead.

The fact is that before patents, technological
progress was very slow for centuries.

Nope. In fact, technological progress was roughly proportional to
total economic production and the level of scientific knowledge both
before _and_after_ patents. The publication of Newton's Principia had
far more impact on technological progress than patent privileges.

A fact which destroys the argument you
were trying to make.

No, of course it doesn't, because in the first place it is not true,
and in the second place even if it were true, it would be nothing but
a post hoc fallacy.

So the Middle Ages were a period of rapid technological growth. Right.


.

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