Re: Definition of "rich"?

ruetheday@xxxxxxxxxx <ruetheday@xxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

Ever read Locke?

Ever hear of the Lockean Provison? Even Locke recognized that the
homesteading of land is only justified as long as there is "as much and
as good left for others", which in reality is never, since the quantity
of land in existence is fixed.

Through trade (exchange) there is ALWAYS something left for others.


When I homestead a piece of land, and perform work on it, I mix my work
with the land, and it thus becomes mine. Thanks to *MY* work, the land
gives off useful resources, be it grain or valuable resources; metal,
oil, coal, gas, lumber, whatever.

The entire concept of "mixing" labor with land is nonsense. Even if
such a thing were possible, how does mixing something you own with
something you do not own confer ownership of the whole?

Robert Nozick demolished the idiotic labor-mixing claim in Anarchy,
State, and Utopia by asking, "if I pour some tomato juice I own into
the ocean, do I now own the ocean or did I just waste my tomato juice?"
He is a libertarian, BTW.

I own the book, but I don't remember reading that passage.


He also asked an interesting question about homesteading - "does the
first private astronaut to land on Mars get to claim the patch of
ground his ship landed on, the whole planet, or the entire uninhabited
universe?"

Only as much land as he can reasonably cover on foot or in a rover.


There is no logically coherent way to provide a moral defense of
private property rights in land and unproduced natural resources.
None.

I disagree. First come first serve is perfectly adequate justification
for me. Besides, the alternatives (collectivisation or government
intervention) are repugnant.


Posession of natural resources is a natural relationship arising between
humans and the land/resources. Nothing untoward about that.

Utter nonsense.

:p


--
regards, Peter Bjørn Perlsø
http://haxor.dk
http://liberterran.org
http://haxor.dk/fanaticism/
.

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