Re: Economic Rent As Sum of Externalities

On Mon, 04 Jun 2007 05:18:33 GMT, royls@xxxxxxxxx in sci.econ
confessed to the world saying:
On Sun, 03 Jun 2007 17:12:21 GMT, jmh <jmhall@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

On Fri, 01 Jun 2007 05:56:16 GMT, royls@xxxxxxxxx in sci.econ
confessed to the world saying:
On Thu, 31 May 2007 19:29:22 GMT, jmh <jmhall@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

My point was his emphasis was not really on the ability of
landlords to control who can access their property but that
a) rent is the term for payment to the land input (just like
wage is payment to labor input and profit payment to
capital input) and

Absolutely correct. The only difference is that unlike the recipients
of the payments for the labor and capital inputs, the recipient of the
payment for the land input does not _contribute_ that input.

b) motivations of landlords was not
much different than the other factor owners and

Now you are trying to divert attention from the fact that a laborer
does not get paid for "owning" labor, nor does a capitalist get paid
for owning capital. They get paid for _contributing_ labor and
capital to production. By contrast, the landowner gets paid for doing
nothing while the productive use the land that was there all along,
with no help from him.

In the above you're making a distinction between Land
and Capitial without a difference.

There is of course a huge difference. You simply refuse to know the
self-evident and indisputable fact that natural resources are not
created by labor, because it disproves your false beliefs.

Packing in more straw I see Roy. You've already tried that
claim once and I refuted it then. I've not claimed that
man created nature by labor.

If you could ever read without your heavy personal filters
you might understand that.

jmh
.

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