Re: LVT: From the rich. To the rich?

On Wed, 27 Jun 2007 19:48:32 -0700, The Trucker in sci.econ
confessed to the world saying:
On Thu, 28 Jun 2007 00:15:02 +0000, Dan in Philly wrote:

OK. Let's assume that land rents are approx. 20% of gdp. And most of it
comes from cities and suburbs, where land costs several 100k$ (whereas land
in the middle of nowhere, even good farmland, is only 1-2 k$). So basically,
the higher productivity of these lands is the result of being near other
productive enterprises.

That's the idea.

For the most part, the people who own these properties are pretty rich. If
we stipulate that individuals should not get land rents (e.g. it represents
some sort of unfair property claim), then the rents should be taxed away.
But to whom should these monies be given?

One way is to split up the money equally, so each square foot of land
receives the same $$. So landowners in city center will be taxed heavily,
but get back little; lsndowners further away will make a profit. But I'm not
sure how far to carry this argument: should a landowner 1000 miles away get
a share of Philadelphia's land rent?

The "equally" means each _voter_ (but includes felons) gets an equal
share. and it doesn't matter where that voter lives in the sovereignty.
What you miss here is that this is the case for the national tax. There
is also state and municiple tax. All these taxing authorities will apply
a tax and redistribute within their respective tax jusrisdictions. They

Leaving aside the question of how one should define "equal
division", are you saying the fedeal government impases a LVT
and then the State and Local impose their own tax on that same
Land Value?

jmh

.

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