Re: 1Mhz -> 1hz
- From: theJackal <f_a_s_t_g_s_f_r_i_d_e_r@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 20 Dec 2005 19:13:27 +0100
On Tue, 20 Dec 2005 11:44:23 -0500, John Popelish <jpopelish@xxxxxxxx>
wrote:
>theJackal wrote:
>> On Mon, 19 Dec 2005 06:42:58 -0600, "siva" <a.siva@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
>>
>>
>>>Hi,
>>>to convert the 1 mhz input to 1 hz output, how many no. of D-flip flops
>>>should i use?
>>>Thanks
>>>regards
>>>siva
>>>
>>
>>
>> Somebody said 20,21 flipflops .. naw you can use much less . A
>> typical divide by 10 counter has 4flipflops and so If you don't feel
>> like cracking your brains get 3 divide by 10 counters , cascade them
>> and you got your 1pulse/sec signal.
>> If you want to design the thing let me know
>
>3 divide by 10 counters gets 1 MHz down to 1kHz.
>
>6 divide by 10 counters gets you to 1 Hz, with 24 flip flops.
Yes . Its been a busy day on Mixer theory here ... LOL
It seems the limit is log10^6/ log12 *4 = 22 flip flops
"Go easy on the whisky"
theJackal
.
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