Re: 1Mhz -> 1hz

On 20 Dec 2005 18:21:09 -0800, bill.sloman@xxxxxxxx wrote:

>
>theJackal wrote:
>> On Tue, 20 Dec 2005 11:44:23 -0500, John Popelish <jpopelish@xxxxxxxx>
>> wrote:
>>
>> >theJackal wrote:
>> >> On Mon, 19 Dec 2005 06:42:58 -0600, "siva" <a.siva@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
>> >>
>> >>
>> >>>Hi,
>> >>>to convert the 1 mhz input to 1 hz output, how many no. of D-flip flops
>> >>>should i use?
>> >>>Thanks
>> >>>regards
>> >>>siva
>> >>>
>> >>
>> >>
>> >> Somebody said 20,21 flipflops .. naw you can use much less . A
>> >> typical divide by 10 counter has 4flipflops and so If you don't feel
>> >> like cracking your brains get 3 divide by 10 counters , cascade them
>> >> and you got your 1pulse/sec signal.
>> >> If you want to design the thing let me know
>> >
>> >3 divide by 10 counters gets 1 MHz down to 1kHz.
>> >
>> >6 divide by 10 counters gets you to 1 Hz, with 24 flip flops.
>>
>>
>> Yes . Its been a busy day on Mixer theory here ... LOL
>>
>> It seems the limit is log10^6/ log12 *4 = 22 flip flops
>
>Not right.
>
>2^20=1,048,576 - I've recommended using 21 D-type bistables so that you
>can use one more D-type to stretch the reset pulse out to 1usec.
>
>----------------
>Bill Sloman, Nijmegen

1)What you're saying is impertinent. First look at the topic ... we
are talking about cascading counters. Look at the denominator
....there is a 12. What does that mean ? Guess. If you can't ask .
You never seem to understand what I say ...

2)2^20=1,048,576 You won't get 1Mhz with that . You need some more
hardware there-


"Go easy with the whisky"


theJackal





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