Re: Probability density of scale transformation

From: Βασίλης Ζωγράφος (unknown_at_nowhere.net)
Date: 09/18/04

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    Date: Sat, 18 Sep 2004 10:33:57 +0100

    Horst Kraemer wrote:
     
    > No sarcasm intended: You are asking "does using a hammer make sense?"
    > Nobody can answer this question without knowing what you want to
    > achieve using a hammer.
    >

    Thank you for the answer.
    So the second part of my question doesn't make sense (translation) or the
    whole question doesn't make sense?
    If its the second part let me rephrase. If we wish to model the distribution
    of the translation parameters (tx,ty) how would the distribution function
    look like? (We assume that the two parameters are independent and normaly
    distributed).

    Also, if we wish to incorporate scale, rotation and translation how would it
    look like? (I would imagine some mutlivariate normal distribution function)

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