Re: Conjucation of "to be"
From: Konrad Den Ende (chamster_at_home.com)
Date: 06/07/04
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Date: Mon, 7 Jun 2004 05:56:32 +0200
> Which verb "to be" are you after:
> $B$"$k!)(B
> $B$$$k!)(B
> $B$G$9(B is a copula and doesn't technically count as a verb.
None of them, actually. I'm not sure if what i was aiming
at was at all possible (since, as you pointed out, we have
the copula issue). What i wished to do was to create a
table such as
http://wwwjdic.eye842.nu/cgi-bin/wwwjdic?1W%BF%A9%A4%D9%A4%EB_v1
only so that instead of "$B$?$Y$^$9(B" it will say "$B$G$9(B",
instead of "$B$?$Y$k(B" it will say "$B$@(B" (i think). That kind
of goal i have set up. Is it doable? At this very moment
i'm a very obedient person so a simple "no" will do... :)
--
Kindly
Konrad
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