Re: The proto-religion of the PIE

From: R.Schenck (nygdan_morteauxspam_at_yahoo.com)
Date: 06/16/04 

Date: 16 Jun 2004 14:34:43 -0700

adda1234@bigpond.com (Arindam Banerjee) wrote in message news:<890e65ea.0406130015.2c7e4086@posting.google.com>...
> ybg@theworld.com (Yusuf B Gursey) wrote...

snip
> > point made is that of the presence of retroflex consonants in indic
> > and the lack of them in other IE. assuming an "out of India"
> > hypothesis would ential something like air rushing into a small hole
> > rather than out of it. i.e. a highly unlikely, near impossible,
> > process.
>
> An opinion, just. Basically, what I see today is that people outside
> India still cannot speak properly. The "aryan" words they use are
> pronounced very badly; when they came to India those words were spoken
> better. So, the barbarians getting better theory works, if they
> really ever spoke better they would not have degenerated to this
> extent.

Why is the presence of this 'retrofelx consonants' an indication of
speaking better (or was this meant tounge in cheek)? Also, wouldn't
the presence of something in a single language indicate that its not
in fact the 'root' language? Couldn't this infact be something that
indic picked up from dravian or any number of ohter languages it has
been in contact with? Or is this 'retroflex consonants' understood to
be very archaic?

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