Re: Learning a language
From: LEE Sau Dan (danlee_at_informatik.uni-freiburg.de)
Date: 06/30/04
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Date: 30 Jun 2004 22:07:15 +0200
>>>>> "Rex" == Rex F May <rex.may@comcast.net> writes:
Rex> Maybe, but I find it hard to believe they perceive it that
Rex> way
>> Why don't you find it hard for English speakers to perceive a
>> French "r" as an (English) "r", not an "h"?
>>
Rex> Because, as an English speaker, I do indeed perceive it as an
Rex> 'r.'
To _me_, "Paris" sounds more like "bahi".
Rex> They're going to have a problem. To my ear, Japanese 'r' is
Rex> indeed intermediate between English r and l.
>> To me, it sounds the same as an "l". Indeed, most (if not
>> all) Sino-Japanese words which are pronounced with an initial
>> "l" in Mandarin or Cantonese are pronounced in Japanese with an
>> initial "r" -- the sound that they claim is an "r" and sound to
>> me an "l".
>>
Rex> Do they claim it as an 'r'?
Yes. The Japanese who designed the romanization scheme think it's
closer to "r" (which "r"? I don't know) than "l". So, they chose
"r".
Rex> Or is it, like the Mandarin 'r', just an orthographical
Rex> convention?
Ask the Japanese.
Rex> So, among the big languages, at least Chinese, Hindi, Arabic
Rex> and all the European languages make the distinction.
>>>>> No. That's untrue. Mandarin makes a completely different
>>>>> distinction.
Rex> It makes a distinction between an 'l' and a rhotic, which is
Rex> my point.
>> But that's insufficient to consider it an "r". Mandarin makes
>> a distinction between "l" and other rhotics, too. Why don't
>> you consider those also "r"?
Rex> And what would those be? Mandarin has rhotics other than
Rex> 'r'?
"zh", "ch" and "sh" in Pinyin all refer to retroflex sounds.
--
Lee Sau Dan +Z05biGVm- ~{@nJX6X~}
E-mail: danlee@informatik.uni-freiburg.de
Home page: http://www.informatik.uni-freiburg.de/~danlee
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