Re: What's the different between /tS/ as one phoneme and as two?
From: Nathan Sanders (nsanders.DIE.SPAM_at_wso.williams.edu)
Date: 07/19/04
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Date: Mon, 19 Jul 2004 21:33:42 GMT
In article <kv1of0163skghknnj7hof5n1ejb13bj8dh@4ax.com>,
Mxsmanic <mxsmanic@hotmail.com> wrote:
> > Essentially, an English /b/ at the beginning of a word is acoustically
> > similar to a French /p/ at the beginning of a word.
>
> But that's true for an English /p/, too.
No, it's not.
> _How_ similar is it? Is a
> French /p/ acoustically closer to an English /b/ or an English /p/, and
> why?
In word-initial position, French /p/ is basically the same thing as an
English /b/. Both are voiceless during closure, with no aspiration
after the release burst.
> So why does this sound like the most obvious difference between /p/ and
> /b/? And why does this difference appear to be the same for both the
> French and English consonants?
Because you aren't hearing correctly? Because you're not looking at
actual phonetic data, but relying on personal beliefs instead of
reality? Because you haven't taken a course in phonetics?
I can't really answer for you. All I can tell you is that French /p/
at the beginning of words is acoustically the same as an English /b/
at the beginning of words. Whether you choose to believe it or not,
whether you think you hear it or not, doesn't really matter; it is
simply true.
> > But aspiration is irrelevant for final /p/ and /b/, and sometimes
> > relevant for medial /p/ and /b/ (depends on stress and syllable
> > structure).
>
> So aspiration can't be the key distinguishing feature. What is, then?
English /p/ and /b/ aren't universally distinguished by a single
acoustic feature across all environments. Sometimes it's aspiration,
sometimes it's voicing, sometimes it's glottalization. This is why
phonological generalizations are handy.
Nathan
-- Nathan Sanders Linguistics Program nsanders@wso.williams.edu Williams College http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders Williamstown, MA 01267
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