Re: What's the different between /tS/ as one phoneme and as two?
From: Miguel Carrasquer (mcv_at_wxs.nl)
Date: 07/20/04
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Date: Tue, 20 Jul 2004 11:37:38 +0200
On 19 Jul 2004 16:17:03 -0700, tor826@yahoo.com (Tor) wrote:
>Nathan Sanders <nsanders.DIE.SPAM@wso.williams.edu> wrote in message news:<nsanders.DIE.SPAM-168936.12514319072004@news.verizon.net>...
>
>> Essentially, an English /b/ at the beginning of a word is acoustically
>> similar to a French /p/ at the beginning of a word.
>
>If so, you'd expect French people to have a tendency to misinterpret
>English words beginning with /b/. They'd often hear <bill> as <pill>,
>for example. But I'm not aware of French people having this
>difficulty.
>
>> There is no significant vocal cord vibration in English plosives at
>> the beginning of a word.
>
>I don't quite agree. I think the voicing is a little reduced, but
>still significant enough to play a role in distinguishing /p/ from
>/b/.
It's not a question of agreeing or not, it's a question of
looking at the spectograms. There is no voicing at the
onset of English voiced /b/. Voicing, or better said, VOT
(Voice Onset Time) of course *does* play a role in
distinguishing /p/ from /b/. In the case of /b/, vocal
chord vibrations begin at around the transition from /b/ to
the following vowel. In the case of initial /p/,
voicelessness is maintained well into the following vowel
(this is perceived as aspiration: [h] is equivalent to any
voiceless vowel).
=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@wxs.nl
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