Re: For those fond of French tongue peculiarities, ...
From: Brian M. Scott (b.scott_at_csuohio.edu)
Date: 07/21/04
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Date: Wed, 21 Jul 2004 15:47:49 -0400
On Wed, 21 Jul 2004 15:19:40 -0400 Harlan Messinger
<h.messinger@comcast.net> wrote in
<news:2m7tudFil22aU1@uni-berlin.de> in sci.lang:
> "Brian M. Scott" <b.scott@csuohio.edu> wrote in message
> news:h32t7fypw998.1d4bre9djwbou.dlg@40tude.net...
>> On Wed, 21 Jul 2004 20:04:28 +0200 Mxsmanic
>> <mxsmanic@hotmail.com> wrote in
>> <news:hubtf05pi02vlt2cisdkhqagsa3262g0i6@4ax.com> in
>> sci.lang:
>>> Brian M. Scott writes:
>>>>> That would mean that your on-call period would have already ended by
>>>>> the next week being referenced. [...]
>>>> Obviously not. Apparently you didn't read the sentence.
>>> But I did.
>>> You might have said "I was to be on call next week," which would mean
>>> that the on-call period was planned for next week. Saying "I was to
>>> have been on call next week" implies that the on-call period would
>>> already be finished by next week."
>> No, it doesn't; it flatly contradicts that interpretation.
> He's right. "I was to be on call next week" when restated from the
> perspective of me next week, becomes "I am on call". Likewise, "I was to
> have been on call next week", when restated from the perspective of me next
> week, becomes "I have been on call".
Which if fine but obviously does not make him right: 'I have
been on call' does not exclude the possibility that I am
still on call. He's claiming that the on-call period must
have ended before next week, which is obviously incompatible
with the statement of which he thinks it's an
interpretation.
[...]
Brian
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