Re: biblical Hebrew conjugation

From: Peter T. Daniels (grammatim_at_worldnet.att.net)
Date: 09/14/04 

Date: Tue, 14 Sep 2004 21:42:49 GMT

Michael Hamm wrote:
>
> On Tue, 14 Sep 2004 20:34:57 GMT, Peter T. Daniels
> <grammatim@worldnet.att.net> wrote, in part:
> > > On Mon, 13 Sep 2004 12:26:45 -0500, Michael Hamm
> > > <msh210@math.wustl.edu> wrote, in part:
> > > > Most /kal/ verbs in the singular
> > >
> > > second-person
> > >
> > > > masculine future tense formed by using the /vav hahipuch/ on a
> > > > past-tense form (e.g., /v'shamarta/) are /mil'ra/. But /lamed-he/
> > > > verbs are /mil'el/: why?

> > not to mention <'> for both shwa and one of the laryngeals.
>
> No, no, only for the sh'va-na, not for any larynge-/pharyngeals. (My
> transliteration scheme for Hebrew is at
> http://math.wustl.edu/~msh210/crusade/transliterate.html fwiw.)

No, it can't possibly be a shwa in mil'el, and I don't think it's at all
correct in milra (unless it's serving yet a third purpose, to indicate
stress on the following syllable, which would be redundant). In
v'shamarta it does mark a shwa, but since it's in phoneme-slants, it's
unnecessary!

Not to mention I've never had the slightest idea which is shwa na and
which is shwa nah. 

-- 
Peter T. Daniels                       grammatim@att.net

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