Re: History of French
From: Brian M. Scott (b.scott_at_csuohio.edu)
Date: 09/23/04
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Date: Thu, 23 Sep 2004 16:23:54 -0400
On Thu, 23 Sep 2004 21:31:26 +0200, Mxsmanic
<mxsmanic@hotmail.com> wrote in
<news:4496l0pqvul42hmg2l4k9ghi7vvd3sc8n7@4ax.com> in
sci.lang:
> Brian M. Scott writes:
>> Neither are the Continental Germanic languages, which have
>> either masculine, feminine, and neuter (e.g., German,
>> Nynorsk) or neuter and non-neuter (e.g., Dutch, Swedish).
> So?
You're still trying to hide from your own words by removing
context, I see. Or are you just too stupid to learn to use
a newsreader properly?
You made a claim that the use of gendered pronouns to refer
to objects that have no sex was sexist. Paul asked whether
this applied to the majority of IE languages in which more
than half of all nouns are either masculine or feminine.
You responded:
If a language has no neuter gender, then obviously
everything must be a "he" or a "she." But English is
not in that category.
I foolishly expected you to have the minimal intelligence
necessary to infer from my comment that German, for
instance, uses gendered pronouns to refer to objects that
have no sex and to clarify whether your claim applied to
German. (If you can't even make that simple inference, it's
no wonder that poetry and serious scholarship are beyond
you.)
Since I'm here, I'll point out that contrary to your
apparent belief, it is not the case that in French
everything is a 'he' or a 'she': you're confusing
grammatical gender with sexual gender.
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