Re: Speaking without a foreign accent

From: Mxsmanic (mxsmanic_at_hotmail.com)
Date: 12/07/04 

Date: Tue, 07 Dec 2004 21:41:31 +0100

Peter T. Daniels writes:

> It does if the speakers can tell which word was intended, but I don't
> know that they can.

It's unlikely that such a difference would be required, since the two
words are unlikely to form minimal pairs themselves in complete
utterances (given their dramatically different meanings and uses).

In other words, it's hard to think of two meaningful and plausible
sentences that differ only in the presence of "ladder" in place of
"latter." 

-- 
Transpose hotmail and mxsmanic in my e-mail address to reach me directly.

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