Re: persian and semitic

From: Ruud Harmsen (realemailseesite01_at_rudhar.com.invalid)
Date: 02/25/05 

Date: Fri, 25 Feb 2005 14:31:23 +0100

Fri, 25 Feb 2005 11:54:42 -0000: "Neeraj Mathur"
<neemathur@hotmail.com>: in sci.lang:

>"dayn" <dayn@abv-dot-bg.no-spam.invalid> wrote in message
>news:421f0ce8$1_2@127.0.0.1...
>>I red in http://www.geocities.com/indoeurop/tree/iran/persian.html
>> that in ancient persian there is 3 vowels-a,u and i.In arabic and PSEM
>> it's the same .Is anc. pers. influenced by akkadian in this sence?
>
>I doubt that it would be due to influence by Akkadian or any Semitic
>language, because this is the exact same vowel system as that found in
>Sanskrit, Persian's closest relative.

Moreover, it is one of simplest conceivable vowel systems given the
physiology of the human speech organ. What is surprising if that there
are only so few unrelated languages that have this vowel system, not
that two or three unrelated languages all had it. 

-- 
Ruud Harmsen - http://rudhar.com/