Re: Academic/scientific journals in Esperanto?
From: Seán O'Leathlóbhair (jwlawler_at_yahoo.com)
Date: 03/17/05
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Date: 17 Mar 2005 01:53:43 -0800
Peter T. Daniels wrote:
> Seán O'Leathlóbhair wrote:
> >
> > Peter T. Daniels wrote:
> > > Seán O'Leathlóbhair wrote:
> > > >
> > > > Peter T. Daniels wrote:
> > > > > Seán O'Leathlóbhair wrote:
> > > > >
> > > > > > but possibly of a new Manx language rather than the old
one. I expect
> > > > > > that the same applies to Hebrew, there are surely native
speakers of
> > > > > > Hebrew alive today but is it the same language as the old
Hebrew?
> > > > >
> > > > > Define "same" ...
> > > >
> > > > A good question. I don't know if there is a standard answer.
> > > >
> > > > Most languages evolve over time and hence in a sense a language
today
> > >
> > > not "most"
> >
> > I put "most" in case someone came back with an obscure language
that
> > (they claimed) remained constant over time. I did not want to get
into
> > any irrelevant disputes about that subject. I would regard "Most X
are
> > Y" to be true even if in fact "All X are Y".
>
> That is uncooperative, in terms of Grice's Conversational Postulates.
> When you say "most" but mean 'all', the reader has to try to figure
out
> what loophole you're leaving yourself.
I would agree that using "most" when I knew that "all" was true would
be uncooperative. But I would claim that using "most" when "all" was
true is a lesser crime than using "all" when "most" was true. For
example in my more familiar domain of maths, no one would object to a
claim of "There exists an integer x such that P(x)" when the reality
was "For all integers x, P(x)". P(x) is some proposition involving x.
I was using "most" because I did not have good evidence to hand that
"all" was true. Do you? Are you sure that there is no language that
has remained constant over a long period?
> > > > may be significantly different from the language of the same
name from
> > > > a century before even if there were a substantial numbers of
native
> > > > speakers for the entire period.
> > >
> > > over one century, not "significantly" different. How much trouble
do you
> > > have understanding your grandparents?
> >
> > So make it a few centuries or a millennium. Can you understand
Beowulf
>
> Only very rarely would people five generations apart find themselves
> conversing -- I recently gave the example of the Queen Mum and Harry
or
> Wills's kids, which due to her extreme longevity would represent a
> considerable extreme -- so whatever "pressure" against language
change
> there may be wouldn't have to keep stages mutually intelligible for
more
> than a century and a half or so.
If you read on, you will see that I am discussing a thought experiment.
I accept that it is not possible to bring together speakers born
hundreds of years apart.
> > (without lots of study)? Anyway, significantly different does not
> > necessarily mean incomprehensible. Can you not distinguish the
speech
> > of your grandparents and your children? Significant change is just
the
> > first step towards incomprehensibility.
>
> Define "significant" ... this is fun ...
No it is not, it is tedious. I believe that you are wilfully failing
to understand. Do you own an English dictionary? Try looking under S.
But if you really wanted a test, would you accept a bet that I could
not reliably distinguish the speech of two English people born more
than 70 years apart?
> > > > For languages and dialects, the usual test is mutual
comprehensibility
> > > > but I am aware that it can be difficult to apply. Even when it
is
> > > > possible to apply it, it may give answers quite different from
the
> > > > traditional ones.
> > > >
> > > > So, we could try a mutual comprehensibility test for points in
the
> > > > history of a single language. Of course, there would be the
additional
> > > > problem of finding the historical speakers. But with this
test, would
> > > > you expect a resurrected speaker of ancient Hebrew to
understand a
> > > > modern speaker? Ditto Manx?
> > >
> > > No, and why not? respectively (given that Manx lasted into the
20th
> > > century).
> >
> > For Manx, it would depend on how good the reconstruction was. I
don't
> > know, it was a genuine question. Just because Manx survived into
the
> > 20th century, it does not mean that we necessarily have good
records
> > and did a good job of reconstructing it. Do we have voice
recordings?
>
> I would assume the BBC has a huge library -- wasn't the Last Speaker
> quite a celebrity?
I don't know that is why I am asking. My questions are usually genuine
rather than rhetorical. I claim no knowledge of Manx.
> > > > As for dialects, we would often get answers different from
traditional
> > > > usage. Old English would be a different language to modern
English and
> > > > not just a different stage in one language.
> > > >
> > > > But what I had in mind was a vaguer notion. Is there a smooth
> > > > continuous evolution of the language as may have happened if it
did not
> > > > experience death and rebirth? Or is there a very large
discontinuity?
> > >
> > > The latter.
> >
> > As I would have expected.
> >
> > > > Suppose a linguist unfamiliar with the language was presented
with lots
> > > > of material in date sequence but with the large gap masked.
Would he
> > > > be able to deduce that something unusual had happened to the
language
> > > > or would it appear as plausible gradual evolution.
> > >
> > > ??
> >
> > There is a question mark missing from the end of that but otherwise
I
> > think that it is a clear question. It is a suggested thought
> > experiment to determine if ancient and modern Hebrew can be
considering
> > a single language. Take many samples of ancient and modern Hebrew,
> > sort them chronologically but disguise the large gap when the
language
> > was dead. Give these samples to a linguist unfamiliar with Hebrew
(*)
> > and ask for comments. Would he come back and say that something
very
> > strange happened to the language between samples 1000 and 1001? Or
> > would he say, it seems to be a typical example of language
evolution?
> > If the latter, we could reasonably say that ancient and modern
Hebrew
> > are different periods in the evolution of one language. If the
former,
> > it may be better to regard them as different, though related,
languages.
>
> It looks like you're not familiar with the history of Hebrew. It has
> never been a dead language, has never gone out of use; it was the
second
> language of every literate Jew and used for international
communication
> among Jews on every imaginable topic for at least 1500 years when it
was
> no one's first language.
No, I am not very familiar with the history of Hebrew. As I said
above, my questions are usually genuine questions. But, do you claim a
language is alive if it has no native speakers? Do you believe that
Latin is a living language because it has remained in use by the
Catholic church? As far as I am aware, Latin is normally described as
dead. Was Hebrew less dead? Why?
> But already Mishnaic Hebrew (found in the Mishna and in Ecclesiastes,
> the last book of the Hebrew Bible to be written) is quite different
from
> Classical Hebrew; the inherited tense system was no longer used, and
the
> tenses are in a more Aramaic mode (and Aramaic itself exhibits
influence
> from Iranian and Greek).
>
> Ben Yehuda's revival of Hebrew in Palestine was done by non-native
> speakers of Hebrew not speaking their native language around their
> children. They used Hebrew vocabulary and morphology, but
(philologists
> in those days paid little attention to syntax) not syntax, including
the
> uses of the aspects; so Modern Hebrew has basically SAE grammar
> ("Standard Average European," Whorf's term).
>
> > (*) The probable non-existence of such a linguist is why this is
merely
> > a thought experiment rather than a potential real experiment.
> >
> > > > Do you know Crystal's book: The Cambridge Encyclopedia of the
English
> > > > Language? In what sense is he using "language" in the title?
Is he
> > > > claiming that Old, Middle and Modern English are one language?
Is he
> > > > claiming that all the many dialects are one? Or is he just
claiming
> > > > that they have a common origin and there are continuous links
between
> > > > them?
> > >
> > > Define "a language."
> >
> > Well I was trying to off load that question onto Crystal. Do you
know
> > that book? What do you think he means by "The English Language"?
>
> I never managed to read much of that book, since it's all about
English
> (but a useful reference work). But surely he tells you near the front
> what he means? You'd do better to try his brand-new History of
English
> (I don't know the title).
I has mislaid my copy of that book so I cannot easily check. But
judging by the contents, his notion of language is similar to my broad
one below. I also know that Crystal is well regarded by professional
linguists (e.g. my doppelganger) so I am not embarrassed to use a term
in a similar way to him.
> And his *Cambridge Encyclopedia of Language* is far more rewarding.
I found both books, and many of his others, very rewarding reading.
> > The following is merely my amateur guess.
> >
> > I do not suppose any perfect, objectively testable definition is
> > possible. Also, the definition probably has to depend on the
context.
> > Here is a narrow and broad definition.
> >
> > Narrow: Take one speaker of the language in question. Anyone that
he
> > can communicate with is a speaker of the same language. They must
be
> > able to discuss a wide range of subjects but a few
miscommunications
> > and some accustomisation are acceptable. I know that this is not
> > perfect. Firstly, the answer may depend on your selection of test
> > speaker. Secondly, my use of "few" and "some" are too vague.
> >
> > Broad: All the descendants of some single language (narrow sense),
> > ideally with demonstrable continuous links, even if not all members
are
> > mutually comprehensible. I imagine Crystal's use in that book
title
> > was something like that.
>
> Bzzzt. It's not a question linguists deal with. The difference
between
> "language" and "dialect" is purely political.
Are you sure? So what was Crystal doing in that book? Is the mutual
comprehensibility test a political one?
> > Can some expert pop in and help us here?
>
> No.
Have you asked all of them?
> --
> Peter T. Daniels grammatim@att.net
You are very demanding about definitions. I am actually used to that
since my main domain is mathematics. But I cannot see how the
precision of maths can be achieved in this domain. As far as I can
see, you must accept a lower standard or do nothing. As a result,
theorems of the certainty of maths will not be possible. Can you point
to any definition in linguistics that satisfies you? How about
phoneme? I have not seen a definition that would be acceptable in
maths. Nonetheless, it is a useful concept.
-- Seán O'Leathlóbhair
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