Re: Etymology of Greek Word Muia??

From: Harlan Messinger (hmessinger.removethis_at_comcast.net)
Date: 03/17/05 

Date: Thu, 17 Mar 2005 15:20:40 -0500

grapheus@www.com wrote:
> Ha,ha,ha !... Your "explanation" of the duality of the Homeric forms
> <-oio> and <-oo> is UNIQUELY BASED upon the "Risch-Chadwick Theory",
> considered as a DOGMA : As this duality DOESN'T EXIST in MYCENAEAN,
> you POSTULATE "an irregular development of *-sy " (your words)...
> But for ANYBODY of good faith -but, of course, not for DOGMATICS of
> YOUR KIND-,

I can think of little that's as dogmatic as believing that this single
disk, even if deciphered, could shed as much illumination on the
entirety of linguistic development, in so many ways, as you think it does.