Re: accents

From: Ruud Harmsen (realemailseesite01_at_rudhar.com.invalid)
Date: 03/18/05 

Date: Fri, 18 Mar 2005 11:34:36 +0100

18 Mar 2005 03:33:15 -0600:
galaxym812000@yahoo-dot-com.no-spam.invalid (brennus): in sci.lang:

>There is some evidence that accents in human languages can still
>change without external influences.

Whyever would they not?

>For example, Icelandic, as
>conservative as it is, has changed a little bit in acccent and
>pronunciation from that of Old Norse.

Not just a little bit, but considerably.

>Yet, Icelandic society was
>almost completely isolated from the rest of northern Europe after the
>middle of the 12th century.

So?

>Linguists have also noticed changes in the accents of Black American
>speakers. Just a century ago, Black American accents were nearly
>identical to those of White American Southerners. Recordings of them
>were made as late as the 1940's. By comparing the speech of 21st
>century American Blacks with these, we know that their accents have
>undergone some changes.
They moved from the south to New York, Chicago etc.? Which Black
accent are we talking about, from which parts of the US?

>However, I can't think of any external
>influences that would really cause their accents to change.

Why should external influences have anything to do with accents?

>The
>majority of them still live in the South or have until the last 15 to
>25 years.

Is that so? Aren't black people now all over the country?

>Even, outside the South, they have little interaction with
>Northern Whites or Hispanics.

??? 

-- 
Ruud Harmsen - http://rudhar.com/

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