Re: shirt in Hindi
- From: "Neeraj Mathur" <neemathur@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sun, 8 May 2005 17:46:57 +0100
"Yusuf B Gursey" <ybg@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:1115564594.449713.14180@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> which is closer to Afghanistan Persian, not surprisingly, and also Dari
> vowels are closer to Classical Persian and hence that of Sanskrit.
Do you know of any useful English-based courses in Dari or Classical
Persian? All of the courses I know of (Lambton, which I have a copy of, and
Mace, alongside the Teach Yourself or Colloquial books) default to Tehran
pronunciation and teach the modern language of that part of Persia. I
understand that the grammar is not much changed, but the phonology, I assume
has; I have heard it said that the Persian which flourished in India was
essentially Indianised, as English is today, and certainly the few instances
I've come across (the odd qawwali for instance) seems to use North Indian
phonology. You say (and have before) that Dari had a vowel system more like
Sanskrit; are there any texts that discuss this or take the Classical
language - either of Rumi, Khayyam and those type of poets or the Mughal
language - as their main point of reference? Thanks.
> few Arabs made it into Central Asia (there are a few in Afghanistan and
> southern uzbekistan, not counting the recent arrivals of course!) and
> just about nil into N. India. Arab traders went ot S. India, a
> different matter.
>
> the Arab armies were quite heavily Khorasani Persian and spread Persian
> rather than Arabic into Central Asia.
I was thinking of the Arab conquest of Sindh in 712; their rule under the
caliphate seems to have lasted until 871, after which they became
independent; Arab rule was lost in the area around 1000. Was this conquest
also likely to have been by a Khorasani Persian army? I thought it would be
a bit early for that.
>> > Portuguese and the otrher from Perso-Arabic (qami:S is found in the
>> > Qur'an). there woudln't be any reason to pronounce /S/ as z in
> persian.
>>
>> Nor, of course, in Hindi-Urdu, which has S as a native phoneme.
>
> I used S to represent emphatic s which is only found in arabic
Okay, now I see what you were saying. Slightly less incredulous;
nevertheless, I am still certain that I have not heard a pronunciation where
the final letter is devoiced to [s], although I've seen the suggestion often
enough in English texts that it happens.
Neeraj Mathur
.
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