Re: How close is Vietnamese to Mandarin or Cantonese?
- From: benlizross <benlizro@xxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 20 May 2005 19:13:07 +1200
Peter T. Daniels wrote:
>
> Lee Sau Dan wrote:
> >
> > >>>>> "benlizross" == benlizross <benlizro@xxxxxxxxxx> writes:
> >
> > >> > FYI, "typhoon" is [t'Oi22 fUN55] in Cantonese. So, if you
> > >> > think "typhoon" came from Cantonese, you not only have to
> > >> > explain the discrepancy in the final "n", but also the
> > >> > wrongly spelt diphthong in the first syllable.
> > >>
> > >> Can you point to _any_ English word that ends with, or even
> > >> contains, the sequence "oong" /uwN/? -- Peter T. Daniels
> > >> grammatim@xxxxxxx
> >
> > benlizross> Is every little phonotactic gap like this assumed to
> > benlizross> be the result of a Rule of English Phonology? I
> > benlizross> believe the Aussies have /uN/ in "boong". (And maybe
> > benlizross> some sinophiles pronounce names like "Fung" and "Sung"
> > benlizross> that way.) Even if we imagine that /uwN/ is somehow
> > benlizross> impossible, would not /uN/ be a possible English form
> > benlizross> for the Cantonese word? FWIW OED has an 1806 citation
> > benlizross> in which the word is spelled <ty-foong>.
>
> I'm trying to explain to LSD that absence of /N/ in the English word
> does not require absence of /N/ in the source language. The /uN/
> sequence in the source language (for instance, Cantonese) should yield
> /uwn/ in English.
What I'm questioning is whether you have a theory which predicts
_exactly_ this outcome. And I don't see it so far.
Ross Clark
.
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