Re: Sob, it's true about uvular R

G. Leo Sahakian wrote:

[...] There's always the voiced velar fricative... 

I feel for Harlan, but the uvular r and the voiced velar fricative
are probably the 2 sounds I'd regret the less losing the ability to
produce. Maybe he can get around with a voiceless fricative?


heavens, no! this is no substitute for r; why voiceless? he didn't
have his vocal cords removed!!


Because it's less ugly!

I take it you are not a portuguese with both a front and a back r:
but


Like 99% of the portuguese, I have 2 r's. A
not-so-uvular-but-rather-more-front-quasi-palatal trill, and a flap.

isn't the voiced velar approximant the es. (and pt.?) g in, say,
pagar?


Portuguese /g/ tends to it, yes, even in initial position. (Galcian may
have [h].)

what is this unhealthy fascination with that unpleasant sound (back r's), which probably originated as a speech defect and then was aped
by snobs to end up as very fashionable. fr. r is not (usually) a
uvular trill; nor a uvular fricative; normally it is a _post_velar
fricative; make it velar and you get gh, el. gámma, ar. ghain, hy.
ghat, ka. ghan, de. (north, dial.) g in wagen, etc. 

The french sounds rather more uvular than the portuguese. The eastern
occitan is more similar - a word like 'faire' ['fajRe] is almost
perfectly pronounceable in portuguese, phonotaxis aside.

Iirc, parisian at one point went all the way to [g]?
--
am

laurus : rhodophyta : brezoneg : smalltalk : stargate
.

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