Re: Be and Have in Arabic, English and German


Peter T. Daniels <grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:437B3F53.5D1C@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> Paul J Kriha wrote:
> >
> > Harlan Messinger <hmessinger.removethis@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
> > news:3tug3iFut1o1U1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> > > Dr. Joel M. Hoffman wrote:
> > > >>We know what "se" and "ser" are in Spanish. What Ruud wanted to know is
> > > >>whether you could give an example to show what you mean when you claim
> > > >>that the pronoun "se" is being used as a verb or that it has anything
> > > >>whatsoever to do with "ser".
> > > >
> > > >
> > > > SE is not being used as a verb. It's a pronoun in Spanish. What's
> > > > relevant is that the pronoun plus the infinitive ending yields the
> > > > verb "to be."
> > >
> > > It isn't relevant to anything. Your analysis is akin to claiming that
> > > "naked" is the past tense of an unattested verb "to nake" or that "beer"
> > > is the comparative form of the a verbal adjective "to be".
> >
> > And the beest of all is to nake around on the beach in the slowly evening sun.
>
> Is the sun ever uneven? Why does it need to even [itself], at whatever
> speed?
> Peter T. Daniels

:-)
I'm just looking out of the bay window of my living room and there
behind the vast expanse of the southern oceans the sun is getting
even with the horizon. Or something like that. Anyway, that's what
I claim I was thinking of.

Or, could I have been thinking of "evening" as opposed to "morning". No. :-)

pjk



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