Re: So it is true...
- From: Torsten Poulin <t_usenet_drop@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sun, 04 Dec 2005 18:55:44 +0100
Des Small wrote:
> sigvald@xxxxxxxx writes:
>> When Denmark consisted of Scania (+Blekinge and Halland) and the
>> islands to the south-west (Jutland did not become a part of the realm
>> until later) it was naturally a part of the Scandinavian peninsula.
>> That is why Denmark is Scandinavian along with Sweden and Norway.
> This looks like an instance of the etymological fallacy to me;
It certainly does.
> or do Scandiwegians's synchronic intuitions about 'skandinavien' really
> come with these such ancient and glorious cultual and histories?
Hardly. The "Ordbog over det Danske Sprog" remarks, in its entry for
"Skandinav", that "Skandinavien" is a designation for the Scandinavian
Peninsula or (now as a rule) for the Nordic countries (Denmark, Norway,
Sweden, and Iceland; in contemporary use Finland is also often counted in).
[[...] betegnelse for den skandinaviske halvø ell. (nu oftest) om de
nordiske lande (Danmark, Norge, Sverige og Island; i nyeste tid regnes
Finland ogs. ofte med hertil)].
What is called contemporary in the ODS isn't necessarily anymore. Anyway,
what is more important, is that it doesn't seem to cite any sources older
than the 19th century in its entries for words related to "Scandinavia".
--
Torsten
.
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