Re: Latin pronunciation puzzle

Colin Fine wrote:
> If you are talking about English, this is false. <ph> as a digraph
> represents not only the same phoneme as <f> but the same phone. (I
> exclude cases where <ph> represents /ph/ and <f> represents /v/).

True for most native speakers. Non-native speakers who were never
formally taught that <ph> is to be pronounced [f], including yours
truly, can pronounce them differently; I still have a trace of my
original [p<h>] in some contexts but the difference is slight enough to
have passed unnoticed thus far.

> /f/ and /v/ differ in voicing. It is possible that there are other concommitent differences,
> but I am unable to detect any difference in
> the teeth and lip positions.

In certain dialects, there's a great deal of difference in positions
where /v/ is realized as an approximant. Compare a British Shakesperian
stage actor's <evil>/<ever> with any Anglo's <Eiffel>/<effort>.

> There is no /f/ (or /v/) in 'Attenborough'.

No. There is, however, one in <Atherton> pronounced by some Anglos and
Frogs, albeit an odd thing for Anglos and Frogs to agree on.

.

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