Orthography supporting sound changes?
- From: Joachim Pense <spam-collector@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 06 Jan 2006 09:28:57 +0100
In principle, It appears not to be impossible to me that reversals of lossy
sound changes could happen if the old pronounciation is preserved by
writing. I'm thinking of a reversal of a sound merger, or re-appearance of
a lost sound.
Are there any reported examples of such sound change reversals having
happened, where it can be demonstrated (or at least is strongly believed by
many) that the orthography was the only preserver of the old situation (so
it was not also preserved by maybe regional or social variants of spoken
language)?
Or are there strong arguments that this is impossible?
Joachim
.
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