Re: Orthography supporting sound changes?
- From: "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 06 Jan 2006 13:31:45 GMT
Joachim Pense wrote:
>
> In principle, It appears not to be impossible to me that reversals of lossy
> sound changes could happen if the old pronounciation is preserved by
> writing. I'm thinking of a reversal of a sound merger, or re-appearance of
> a lost sound.
>
> Are there any reported examples of such sound change reversals having
> happened, where it can be demonstrated (or at least is strongly believed by
> many) that the orthography was the only preserver of the old situation (so
> it was not also preserved by maybe regional or social variants of spoken
> language)?
>
> Or are there strong arguments that this is impossible?
Cf. Eng. peak/peek/Peke
--
Peter T. Daniels grammatim@xxxxxxx
.
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