Re: Orthography supporting sound changes?
- From: Barbara Need <language-labs@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 06 Jan 2006 10:11:13 -0600
In article <dpl987$gin$01$1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Joachim Pense <spam-collector@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> In principle, It appears not to be impossible to me that reversals of lossy
> sound changes could happen if the old pronounciation is preserved by
> writing. I'm thinking of a reversal of a sound merger, or re-appearance of
> a lost sound.
>
> Are there any reported examples of such sound change reversals having
> happened, where it can be demonstrated (or at least is strongly believed by
> many) that the orthography was the only preserver of the old situation (so
> it was not also preserved by maybe regional or social variants of spoken
> language)?
>
> Or are there strong arguments that this is impossible?
>
> Joachim
Well, there are _after_ and _often_. Both othe these had lost the [t] in
pronunciation. _after_ now has it again; _often_ is getting it. (I had a
student say once, when asked which she said and which was "right", "Well
I say [OfIn], but I know it's wrong"!)
Barbara
Barbara Need
UChicago
.
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