Re: Orthography supporting sound changes?
- From: Aidan Kehoe <kehoea@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sat, 07 Jan 2006 11:03:54 +0100
Ar an séiú lá de mí Eanair, scríobh Joachim Pense:
> In principle, It appears not to be impossible to me that reversals of
> lossy sound changes could happen if the old pronounciation is preserved
> by writing. I'm thinking of a reversal of a sound merger, or
> re-appearance of a lost sound.
English ‘housewife’ became ‘hussy’ through phonetic reduction. Then the
latter developed as an independent word, and the pronunciation of the former
fell back to one that better reflected its orthography.
> Are there any reported examples of such sound change reversals having
> happened, where it can be demonstrated (or at least is strongly believed by
> many) that the orthography was the only preserver of the old situation (so
> it was not also preserved by maybe regional or social variants of spoken
> language)?
>
> Or are there strong arguments that this is impossible?
There may be, but they’re not intellectually honest.
--
I AM IN JAIL AND ALLOWED SEND ONLY ONE CABLE SINCE WAS ARRESTED WHILE
MEASURING FIFTEEN FOOT WALL OUTSIDE PALACE AND HAVE JUST FINISHED COUNTING
THIRTY EIGHT THOUSAND FIVE HUNDERED TWENTY TWO NAMES WHOS WHO IN MIDEAST.
.
- References:
- Orthography supporting sound changes?
- From: Joachim Pense
- Orthography supporting sound changes?
- Prev by Date: Re: Foreign is foreign, right?
- Next by Date: Re: Foreign is foreign, right?
- Previous by thread: Re: Orthography supporting sound changes?
- Next by thread: Re: Orthography supporting sound changes?
- Index(es):
Relevant Pages
|
Loading