Re: Foreign is foreign, right?
- From: "ranjit_mathews@xxxxxxxxx" <ranjit_mathews@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 7 Jan 2006 04:26:28 -0800
Miguel Carrasquer wrote:
> On Fri, 06 Jan 2006 16:27:52 +0100, Ruud Harmsen
> <realemailseesite13@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
>
> >Fri, 06 Jan 2006 15:39:00 +0100: Artur Jachacy
> ><arturj.usenet@xxxxxxxxx>: in sci.lang:
> >
> >>> What do you find similar between a voiced velar stop and a bilabial
> >>> approximant?
> >>
> >>[w] has a second, velar, place of articulation. Ha!
> >
> >Not when I say it.
>
> Then you're not saying [w], which is, by definition, a
> labio-velar approximant.
I've seen [w] described as a labial velar approximant which seemed to
imply that its point of articulation is only velar, in the same sense
that its corresponding stop, <qu> implying [k] with rounded lips, has
only a velar point of articulation. Labio velar approximant, however,
seems to imply a places of articulation at the lips AND velar region;
i.e., that it has two places of articulation.
Should labial be understood the same way as labio or was the labial I
saw a typo?
.
- References:
- Foreign is foreign, right?
- From: Peter T. Daniels
- Re: Foreign is foreign, right?
- From: Ruud Harmsen
- Re: Foreign is foreign, right?
- From: Peter T. Daniels
- Re: Foreign is foreign, right?
- From: Ruud Harmsen
- Re: Foreign is foreign, right?
- From: Peter T. Daniels
- Re: Foreign is foreign, right?
- From: Artur Jachacy
- Re: Foreign is foreign, right?
- From: Ruud Harmsen
- Re: Foreign is foreign, right?
- From: Miguel Carrasquer
- Foreign is foreign, right?
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