Re: Orthography supporting sound changes?
- From: "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sat, 07 Jan 2006 13:47:29 GMT
Helmut Richter wrote:
>
> In article <dpl987$gin$01$1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>, Joachim Pense wrote:
>
> > In principle, It appears not to be impossible to me that reversals of lossy
> > sound changes could happen if the old pronounciation is preserved by
> > writing. I'm thinking of a reversal of a sound merger, or re-appearance of
> > a lost sound.
> >
> > Are there any reported examples of such sound change reversals having
> > happened, where it can be demonstrated (or at least is strongly believed by
> > many) that the orthography was the only preserver of the old situation (so
> > it was not also preserved by maybe regional or social variants of spoken
> > language)?
> >
> > Or are there strong arguments that this is impossible?
>
> Why should it not happen? Yet I consider it improbable. You need four
> ingredients:
>
> 1) a language that has been written for enough time that sound changes
> could be visible in spelling habits
>
> 2) a conservative and irregular orthography where sound changes do not
> yield spelling changes shortly after
>
> 3) an influence of the spelling on the language
>
> 4) the absence of conservative dialects
>
> For point (2), conservative spelling is not enough. French and German
> spelling are fairly conservative but also fairly regular. There is no
> reason that a silent letter is ressurrected in the pronunciation when
> *all* letters in that position are silent. This reduces the possible
> languages significantly: for instance English and Danish are left. For
> point (3), I know a number of German examples, but they are due to the
> fact that German needed standardisation which contradicts point (4);
> English would be similar in this respect.
You left out the most relevant point: children would have to learn to
spell before they learned to talk.
--
Peter T. Daniels grammatim@xxxxxxx
.
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