Re: Orthography supporting sound changes?

Herman Rubin wrote:
>
> In article <43C11FE0.55B3@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
> Peter T. Daniels <grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> >Aidan Kehoe wrote:
>
> >> Ar an t-ocht l de m Eanair, scrobh Helmut Richter:
>
> >> > > "Sound change" is a technical term, which certainly doesn't apply to
> >> > > learning a standard language on top of a local vernacular!
>
> >> > Certainly not as long as the two are kept distinct. But would it apply to
> >> > a gradual modification of the local vernacular under the influence of the
> >> > standard language everyone has to use? This is the more interesting
> >> > scenario here.
>
> >> My position is; why wouldn*t it?
>
> >First, discover whether it does or doesn't. _Then_ ask why.
>
> >Can you provide any examples of it happening?
>
> >Of why a population would devote the psychic energy to changing their
> >speech to match that of the upper classes? See, perhaps, Milroy on
> >"power and solidarity."
>
> No, but they might want to speak (and write) a "correct"
> language, so as to be understood outside their dialectical
> group. This even used to be emphasized in school.

Oh, for gods sake. The notion of "correct" language was invented in the
mid or late 19th century.

Look up "dialectical" and "dialectal." Or are you now a Marxist?

> The use of language by a large part of American college
> students is difficult to understand by native English
> speaking faculty.

That's because, as you have amply demonstrated over the years, you are
wildly out of touch with contemporary culture and language.
--
Peter T. Daniels grammatim@xxxxxxx
.

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