Re: what is etymology? (linguistics and biology)
- From: "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 27 Jan 2006 13:05:15 GMT
Franz Gnaedinger wrote:
>
> jayne.kulikauskas@xxxxxxxxx wrote:
>
> > The most common theory of how the Gospels were written is that Mark was
> > written first (in Koine Greek) and an unknown source, Q. Matthew and
> > Luke were written (also in Koine) drawing on these two sources and oral
> > traditions. John was written later and had all the previous sources
> > available with the addition of the theological reflection of the
> > author. There is no evidence of "lost originals", unless you are
> > thinking of Q and I haven't heard anyone claim that it was in Aramaic.
> > It is possible some of the oral traditions were in Aramaic, but it
> > doesn't make sense to call this "lost originals".
> >
> > Jayne
>
> Even the Gospel according to Mark dates from the second
> century AD, as I remember having read, so the text we have
> is not the original. I am sorry about Aramaic, it was Hebrew.
> I looked up a paper clip at home, and now quote from the
> memory. Hebrew 'l' can be read with Ain, then it gives el,
> meaning to. Or it can be read with Aleph, then it gives al,
> and means on:
>
> el ha-Majin --- to the water
> al ha-Majin --- on the water
>
> Sorry if there should be a typo. This explanation is not
> by me, but I find it convincing. Jesus walked to the water,
> Jesus walked on the water ...
This is utter bullshit.
First of all, produce some evidence of such a late dating of Mark.
Second, whenever Mark is dated, we don't have the ms. from the hand of
the writer, so of course it's not "original."
Third, it's not a translation.
Fourth, any Semitic substrate is Aramaic, not Hebrew.
Fifth, whether Hebrew or Aramaic, there is nothing that could be "read"
as _either_ `ayin or aleph; they are completely different letters, which
stood for completely different sounds (i.e. phonemes). <'l> 'to' and
<`l> 'on' could not be confused, either orally or in writing (no vowels
were written in 1st- or 2nd-century Aramaic or Hebrew). Both of those
are completely different from the prefix <l>, which also means 'to' (and
many other things; 'l and `l also both have many other "meanings" as
well; function words, or grammatical morphemes, don't translate
one-to-one to grammatical morphemes in other languages).
Sixth, the Hebrew word for 'water' ends with -m, not -n. (The definite
article ha- shows that the phrases are meant to be Hebrew.)
--
Peter T. Daniels grammatim@xxxxxxx
.
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