Re: Vowel variations in Arabic


"Harlan Messinger" <hmessinger.removethis@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:446v1mFmfdbU1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> And while in English we write "Kuwait", why is it "Koweït" in French?

Is this possibly because it's been transliterated from Persian? (In modern
Persian, the word would be pronounced as the French spelling seems to
suggest.) My impression is that Iranian studies seem to have been the most
dominant of Asian cultures studied earliest, and that a lot of Islam-related
things in French are taken through the medium of Persian.

Neeraj Mathur


.

Relevant Pages

  • Re: Vowel variations in Arabic
    ... Neeraj Mathur wrote: ... > Is this possibly because it's been transliterated from Persian? ... there are colloquials in which it does tend to be more open then ... the word would be pronounced as the French spelling seems to ...
    (sci.lang)
  • Re: Vowel variations in Arabic
    ... > Neeraj Mathur wrote: ... >>> Is this possibly because it's been transliterated from Persian? ... >>> modern ... >>there are colloquials in which it does tend to be more open then ...
    (sci.lang)
  • Re: "Burma" on the TV News
    ... Iran and Iranian refers to the modern day country and it's culture, ... etc whereas Persian refers to the traditional cuisine (in the ... since the time of the Persian Empire. ...
    (uk.media.tv.misc)