Re: Question about Spanish

Felix Rawlings wrote:

I am doing some research for a short story and perhaps I can find
some assistance in here. Question: are there countries once
colonized by Spain where the daily spoken language is now a form
of Spanish which has so degraded that it would not be understood
by Spaniards or other (former) colonies?

Please don't say "degraded." It suggests that the language is
somehow inferior or inadequate. Whatever the social circumstances
of its speakers, the language is fully as expressive as that spoken
by any Castilian.

Two things: One, must you be so thoroughly politically correct all the time? And two, where is the data to support your assertion in the
last sentence? Or is this a case of PC dogma first, scientific
evidence afterwards?

No, it's a matter of fact. You know nothing about kanguage if somehow
you think that some languages are less capable than others. Peter's
intent was not to conform to linguistic politeness, but merely to
dispell an erroneous notion.
It's not a dogma or axiom either. There are indeed systems of verbal
communication that aren't as capable as the rest, and those are usually
denied the status of echt language. Iow, should a 'language' be unable
to express a given idea expressible in another, it wouldn't be a language.
Of course, you may chose to understand none of this. In the 11th century, people believed only latin and greek had 'grammar'.
--
am

laurus : rhodophyta : brezoneg : smalltalk : stargate
.

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    ... Spain where the daily spoken language is now a form of Spanish which has ...
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