Re: Question about Spanish

Felix Rawlings wrote:

On Tue, 07 Mar 2006 22:41:58 +0000, Peter T. Daniels wrote:

foggytown wrote:

Dear Group,

I am doing some research for a short story and perhaps I can find some
assistance in here. Question: are there countries once colonized by
Spain where the daily spoken language is now a form of Spanish which has
so degraded that it would not be understood by Spaniards or other
(former) colonies?

Please don't say "degraded." It suggests that the language is somehow
inferior or inadequate. Whatever the social circumstances of its speakers,
the language is fully as expressive as that spoken by any Castilian.

Two things: One, must you be so thoroughly politically correct all
the time? And two, where is the data to support your assertion in the last
sentence? Or is this a case of PC dogma first, scientific evidence
afterwards?

To illustrate what Antonio has already said, the finest Castilian
Spanish (or whatever you take as the apogee of Iberian literature) is
nothing but degraded Latin.
--
Peter T. Daniels grammatim@xxxxxxx
.

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