Re: Question about Spanish
- From: Felix Rawlings <fraw@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 08 Mar 2006 18:29:03 GMT
On Wed, 08 Mar 2006 09:53:23 +0000, Felix Rawlings wrote:
On Tue, 07 Mar 2006 22:41:58 +0000, Peter T. Daniels wrote:
foggytown wrote:
Dear Group,
I am doing some research for a short story and perhaps I can find some
assistance in here. Question: are there countries once colonized by
Spain where the daily spoken language is now a form of Spanish which
has so degraded that it would not be understood by Spaniards or other
(former) colonies?
Please don't say "degraded." It suggests that the language is somehow
inferior or inadequate. Whatever the social circumstances of its
speakers, the language is fully as expressive as that spoken by any
Castilian.
Two things: One, must you be so thoroughly politically correct all
the time? And two, where is the data to support your assertion in the last
sentence? Or is this a case of PC dogma first, scientific evidence
afterwards?
It's interesting to notice that replies so far have just focused on
chastising me, for daring to wonder if the original poster was motivated
by political correctness, and have confirmed that his opinion is correct,
again without producing any solid, scientific data to support it.
.
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