Re: Question about Spanish
- From: Felix Rawlings <fraw@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 10 Mar 2006 11:01:17 GMT
On Thu, 09 Mar 2006 15:27:10 +0000, Peter T. Daniels wrote:
It's not clear whether "foggytown" and "Felix Rawlings" are the same or
different persons. Would you care to clarify? They appear to be; see how
in the string of attributions above, "Felix Rawlings" springs to the
defense of "foggytown."
You are wrong. I don't know who foggytown is, and I have never explicitly
defended this person.
People aren't motivated by political correctness.
What's this? Another assertion that we are supposed to take in
faith?
"Political correctness" is a canard invented by rightwingnutcases to
attempt to sully those with whom they disagree -- those who prefer not
to use degrading vocabulary of fellow humans.
That's interesting. In Europe, political correct behavior is well in the
turf of the left, not the right. In fact, "rightwingnutcases" (as you call
them) seem to be the most politically incorrect people about.
I find it risible, to say the least, for evidence on the contrary is
abundant: e.g. why would anyone talk about dark colored, African
natives as "African-American"?
I haven't seen that referred to as "political correctness" before; the
reasons for it would appear to be threefold: analogy; false
generalization; or ignorance.
That's interesting: Are you implying that calling dark colored, African
natives, who by and large have never set foot in America, is not an
example of political correctness?
Which of those is "PC," o rightwing speechmonitor?
Wow, righties again! You should be able to do better than invoking the
right wing bogey man every time you run out of arguments.
Whatever the social circumstances of its speakers, the language is
fully as expressive as that spoken by any Castilian.
OK, let's see the scientific support for that. That's all I am
asking.
Where is it?
No, sir. When you assert something, er, ridiculous, it's up to you to
provide evidence for your assertion. What is the evidence that some
human language is unable to express something that some other human
language is able to express?
Notice that this the core of the issue: You assert something without any
supporting evidence, and I ask for such evidence. Mind you, I am not
saying that you are wrong. Just asking for evidence. Your
supercilious answer is that I am saying something ridiculous. Not only are
you adscribing to me things I have never said, but, in addition your
kneejerk reaction is to engage in an ad hominem attack.
We are not discussing here deep concepts of quantum field theory or
modular forms, which require lots of technical background. We are
discussing a simple assertion, to wit, whether some language derived from
Castilian is, or is not, as fully as expressive as that spoken by any
Castilian (your words). Your answer to this is an unqualified,
unsupported, dogmatic yes.
Some people (I, among them) are not convinced that this assertion is
obviously true, and therefore ask for supporting evidence. Mr. Daniels and
friends' reaction consists of using pejorative terms to refer to such a
request. Well, maybe we are wrong. Maybe asking for scientific support for
such views is, er, ridiculous. But you could, at very least, try not to
come across as a dogmatic, anachronic, magister dixit-like kind of figure.
.
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