Re: Question about Spanish
- From: "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 10 Mar 2006 14:59:54 GMT
phoglund@xxxxxx wrote:
It is one of the less divergent dialects of Spanish, although lately
it's being influenced by Argentinian.
Neruda wrote and IsAbel Allende writes standard peninsular Spanish, with
some words for lexical items that have no name in Spain.
And Borges didn't?
I seem not to recall a single instance of voseo in Borges's works. Did
Borges employ voseo or did he not? I guess there is so little personal
address in his books that you can read half his production right
through and still be uncertain if he had voseo or not.
I don't know or care what voseo is; the question was, Didn't Borges
"write[] standard peninsular Spanish, with some words for lexical items
that have no name in Spain"?
--
Peter T. Daniels grammatim@xxxxxxx
.
- Follow-Ups:
- Re: Question about Spanish
- From: Neeraj Mathur
- Re: Question about Spanish
- References:
- Question about Spanish
- From: foggytown
- Re: Question about Spanish
- From: Peter T. Daniels
- Re: Question about Spanish
- From: foggytown
- Re: Question about Spanish
- From: phoglund
- Re: Question about Spanish
- From: Peter T. Daniels
- Re: Question about Spanish
- From: Javi
- Re: Question about Spanish
- From: Peter T. Daniels
- Re: Question about Spanish
- From: phoglund
- Question about Spanish
- Prev by Date: Re: Question about Spanish
- Next by Date: Re: Some European river names
- Previous by thread: Re: Question about Spanish
- Next by thread: Re: Question about Spanish
- Index(es):
Relevant Pages
|