Re: Question about Spanish

Peter T. Daniels wrote:

Neruda wrote and IsAbel Allende writes standard peninsular Spanish,
with some words for lexical items that have no name in Spain.

And Borges didn't?

As Phoglund mentioned, most of Borges is at a level in which it is
difficult to tell. Of the rest - a little of it is too technical for any
difference to even be possible; the remaining is deeply argentinian in
theme (more so than just south american) and may yield a bit to
'standard peninsular Spanish, with some words for lexical items that
have no name in Spain'. Last, I'm pretty sure his milongas should be
'idiomatically' argentinian.
In a way, Borges is pretty much like Tolkien.
--
am

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