Re: Question about Spanish

Peter T. Daniels wrote:
Javi wrote:

[...]

I mean BY "Chilean" exactly what phoglund meant by "Argentine Spanish"
or you meant by "Argentinian" -- whatever variety of the language can be
unmistakeably identified as characteristic of the country it's named
for.



(I kinda doubt there's such a thing as "Argentinian," simply
because Argentina is a pretty big country

You are right; when we speak about Argentinian Spanish, without further qualification, we are speaking of the form used in the media, which, in this case, is the variety spoken in Buenos Aires by the middle classes. The northwestern provinces speak with a certain Andean "flavour", in the areas bordering Brazil there is a pidgin that is becoming a full language, namely "portuñol" (from "portugués" and "español"); anyway the media influence is growing and the speech is becoming more uniform, following the Buenos Aires standard.

>that's had a lot of immigration from all oer.)

About 70-80% of Argentinians are either of Italian, or Spanish, or a mix of both, descent.

It is one of the less divergent dialects of Spanish, although lately
it's being influenced by Argentinian.

Neruda wrote and IsAbel Allende writes standard peninsular Spanish, with
some words for lexical items that have no name in Spain.


And Borges didn't?

AFAIK, Borges also wrote his works in standard Spanish; he used the local variety (and even the Lunfardo slang) in the dialogue of a few short stories set in southern America.

--
Javi
.

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