Re: where do so many tenses come from?
- From: Ruud Harmsen <realemailseesite13@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 27 Mar 2006 13:50:26 +0200
Mon, 27 Mar 2006 03:28:34 -0800: "Alexei A. Frounze"
<alexfru@xxxxxxx>: in sci.lang:
So, if I take off English all tenses formed w/o the auxiliary verbs to be
and to have, then all I have for the past, present and future is simple past
and simple present. There's no future. In this limited set of tenses to talk
about the future one probably needs to use present simple (past simple would
be odd) with additional specification of the time in future (e.g. tomorrow).
While that is certainly possible, that way is nonuniform.
AFAIK it is not possible in English, i.e. present tense + future
adverb is ungrammatical in English. (Unlike in Dutch, which makes it a
well-known pitfall for us.)
Is that because
people tend to talk about the future less than about the present and past or
is that because of something else?
I think it's just tha grammar rules of languages, and they are simply
very different. There aren't any reasons for that, it's just the way
it is.
--
Ruud Harmsen - http://rudhar.com
.
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