Re: The Negative Dilemma II
- From: "Dr. Jamshid Ibrahim" <Jdibrahim@xxxxxxx>
- Date: 27 Mar 2006 21:44:30 -0800
Dan a écrit :
"He lives on $1000 a year" usually means that he gets $1000 a year and
he spends _at most_ that. "He spends $1000 a year" usually means he
spends exactly $1000 a year, but it can also mean he spends _at least_
$1000 a year.
"He doesn't live on $1000 a year" by itself gives me very little
understanding of the situation, what he earns, and what he spends,
whereas "He doesn't spend $1000 a year" clearly means he spends less,
unless someone's being pedantic, in which case it could mean he spends
more or less. The point is that _the first sentence does not
necessarily yield more than $1000._
<<II. Compare the change of meaning with "like" in the following:
Positive
I like to go the cinema (infinitive:a matter of choice)
I like going to the cinema (gerund: a matter of enjoyment)
Negative
I don't like to go to the cinema (infinitive: I don't go)
I don't like going to the cinema (gerund: I go but I don't like)>>
In the first case I agree with you. For instance, "As soon as I get off
the plane, I like to go to the cinema" sounds clearer to me than "As
soon as I get off the plane, I like going to the cinema."
However, the first negative sentence is usually said by someone who has
done it in the past where it's not clear whether or not it'll happen
again in the future; the second _can_ be used in this situation too.
Yes, I agree there is even more meaning in the negative than expected.
This means the negative is not always simply negating the positive as
("Tom is at home" and "Tom is not at home". The question is: can the
change of meaning in the negative be predicted from the positive? If so
what does it depend on? Is it the emphasis, the type of verb or
what...? This ambiguity shows superiority of language over logic.
.
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